Question 1 of 1501% Complete

A 42-year-old man has smooth, glazed, cupped lesions on the occlusal surfaces of his mandibular molars and shallow, saucer-shaped loss on the palatal surfaces of the maxillary incisors, with amalgams standing proud of the surrounding tooth. He drinks little carbonated drink, reports frequent heartburn and a sour taste at night. What is the most appropriate FIRST step in management?

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DOH Abu Dhabi (HAAD) Dental Licensing Exam Mock Test 1 (150 Questions) | Clinical MCQs with Answers | Quiz | MCDI