A 71-year-old man started warfarin 3 days ago for atrial fibrillation. His INR is already 2.1, but his anticoagulant clinic explains that he is not yet fully protected against thrombosis. Which explanation is correct?
1
ORE Part 1 Mock Test 2 - Paper A (Clinically Applied Dental & Human Sciences) | Clinical MCQs with Answers | Quiz | MCDI